Free practice quiz
Pediatric Dentistry Board Prep Course (Pedo): free quiz
10 questions from the program. See your score right away, then unlock the explanation of every answer.
- Question 1 of 10
A 15-month-old presents for a first dental visit. The child clings to the caregiver, cries when approached, points to desired objects, and says “mama,” “dada,” and two other words. The caregiver reports bedtime bottle use and asks whether the child is “too uncooperative” for an exam. Which approach best matches this developmental stage and dental risk?
C is correct: stranger/separation anxiety is expected in toddlers, so caregiver-supported examination and risk-based anticipatory guidance are appropriate. D overestimates language and self-regulation. A misses the recommended dental home by age 1 and prevention opportunity. B is tempting as medical support, but routine toddler anxiety is not a sedation indication; developmental red flags would prompt pediatric referral, not automatic anxiolysis.
Practitioner Action: ASSESS milestones and caries risk; INTERVENE with knee-to-knee exam and prevention counseling; REFER for true developmental concerns; DOCUMENT behavior, findings, and guidance. - Question 2 of 10
A healthy 14-month-old has mild drooling and a 5-mm bluish, fluctuant swelling over the mandibular right primary first molar area. The child is afebrile, feeding normally, and has erupted incisors. The parent asks whether this means the tooth is infected or delayed. What is the best next step?
C is correct. Primary first molars commonly erupt around this age, and a localized bluish fluctuant swelling over an erupting tooth is typical of an eruption cyst; observation and parent guidance are appropriate. A is tempting because swelling can suggest infection, but absence of fever, pain, drainage, or cellulitis makes antibiotics inappropriate. B represents a possible specialist action, but routine biopsy is not indicated for a classic eruption cyst unless atypical or persistent. D overreacts; eruption timing varies, and this pattern is not delayed.
Assess eruption pattern and symptoms; intervene with reassurance and comfort measures; refer if atypical, enlarging, infected, or nonresolving; document findings and guidance. - Question 3 of 10
A 9-month-old presents for a first dental visit. The caregiver reports bedtime bottle use and uncertainty about cleaning newly erupted maxillary incisors. The infant cries when placed in the dental chair. Examination from a quick look shows chalky white cervical areas on the maxillary incisors. What is the best next step?
Infant oral examination
C is correct: knee-to-knee positioning supports visualization and caregiver participation while assessing feeding, habits, trauma, soft tissues, frena, eruption, hygiene, and early caries lesions. A improperly delays the recommended age-1 dental visit. A is inappropriate because noncavitated white spot lesions require risk-based prevention, not antibiotics or automatic general anesthesia. A may be appropriate only after functional assessment identifies a frenal problem requiring referral.
ASSESS infant oral structures and risk factors; INTERVENE with fluoride, hygiene, and feeding guidance; REFER for functional frenum or pathology concerns; DOCUMENT findings and counseling. - Question 4 of 10
A 4-year-old at a first dental visit clings to the parent, refuses to sit in the chair, and has no pain, swelling, or urgent disease. The child watches a sibling complete an exam calmly and briefly allows the mirror to touch a finger. The parent asks how today’s visit should proceed. Which behavior guidance plan is most appropriate?
D is correct: the child shows emerging tolerance, so gradual desensitization with tell-show-do, modeling, praise, and flexible parental presence fits guideline-based behavior guidance. B is inappropriate because coercive voice control conflicts with respectful communication and exceeds the child’s readiness. A is a wrong-provider shortcut; medication decisions require proper indication, consent, and dental sedation standards, not routine avoidance of communication techniques. C may be appropriate for extensive urgent treatment or inability to cooperate despite alternatives, but not for a nonurgent first visit with partial engagement.
Practitioner Action: Assess cooperation, intervene with communicative desensitization, refer for pharmacologic care only when indicated, and document goals and parent role. - Question 5 of 10
A 4-year-old with autism spectrum disorder presents with facial swelling from a primary molar abscess. The child cannot remain still despite tell-show-do, distraction, and the caregiver’s calming support. The planned procedure is brief: examination, radiograph if possible, and incision/drainage or extraction referral as indicated. The child is otherwise medically stable. Which action is most appropriate?
C is correct: protective stabilization may be indicated for urgent care when cooperation is limited, less restrictive methods fail, and safety requires short, goal-directed restraint with consent and documentation. B risks delaying infection management. D may be appropriate for extensive or unsafe care but is beyond the immediate limited need and requires proper anesthesia selection. A is unsafe because caregiver stabilization still requires indication, informed consent, monitoring, and documentation.
Practitioner Action: ASSESS urgency, medical status, and cooperation; INTERVENE with the least restrictive safe method; REFER for sedation/anesthesia or oral surgery when needs exceed pediatric dental scope; DOCUMENT consent, indication, duration, and response. - Question 6 of 10
A healthy 8-year-old is anxious but cooperative for two short occlusal restorations. He breathes comfortably through his nose, has no acute respiratory symptoms, and has responded to tell-show-do. His parent asks for nitrous oxide “so he will not need shots.” Which plan best reflects minimal sedation principles?
B is correct: selected anxious, cooperative children may receive titrated nitrous oxide-oxygen after medical/airway assessment, consent, monitoring, recovery assessment, and continued local anesthesia. D is tempting but nitrous provides anxiolysis, not replacement for analgesia. A ignores fasting guidance, escort planning, dosing, monitoring, and documentation for enteral sedation. C may be appropriate for extensive care, severe noncooperation, or medical risk, but is unnecessary here and shifts beyond routine pediatric dental minimal sedation selection. Review Minimal Sedation Fundamentals — focus on patient selection, airway/cooperation assessment, and protocol steps.
Practitioner Action: Assess history and airway; intervene with behavior guidance, local anesthesia, and titrated nitrous when indicated; refer for higher-level anesthesia when risk or treatment needs exceed office capability; document consent, monitoring, and recovery. - Question 7 of 10
A 4-year-old with autism spectrum disorder presents for recall. He has two new cavitated primary molar lesions, visible plaque, bedtime juice, no fluoridated water exposure, and a caregiver with untreated caries. He tolerates knee-to-knee examination but limited instrumentation. Which risk-based prevention plan is most appropriate now?
Risk-based prevention
C is correct: prior cavitated caries, visible plaque, frequent sugar exposure, low fluoride, caregiver caries, and special health care needs indicate high risk requiring intensified prevention and short recall. B is tempting but undertreats active disease indicators. D is inappropriate; antibiotics are not caries-prevention therapy and directing medical prescribing is outside pediatric dental management. A includes a useful caregiver referral, but the child’s prevention should begin immediately.
Assess caries indicators; intervene with fluoride, diet, and biofilm control; refer caregiver to a dentist as needed; document risk status and recall interval. - Question 8 of 10
A 7-year-old at a recall visit has mixed dentition, multiple prior interproximal restorations, high caries risk, and closed posterior contacts that cannot be visually separated. The child is cooperative. There is no pain, swelling, trauma history, delayed eruption concern, or facial asymmetry. The parent asks whether a panoramic radiograph would be “easier.” Which imaging plan is most appropriate today?
Age-Appropriate Imaging Selection
C is correct: proximal caries risk plus closed posterior contacts justifies bilateral posterior bitewings; cooperation permits intraoral films, consistent with AAPD/ADA criteria. D is tempting for a broad view, but panoramic imaging has lower proximal-caries detail and is not a substitute for indicated bitewings. B is a wrong-provider/over-imaging choice: orthodontists may use panoramic imaging for orthodontic assessment, and radiologists may assist with CBCT interpretation, but this child has no eruption, pathology, or 3-D indication. A is problem-focused: occlusal/periapical views answer localization, trauma, swelling, or eruption questions, not routine proximal screening.
ASSESS risk and contacts; INTERVENE with bitewings; REFER for atypical pathology or 3-D needs; DOCUMENT indication and findings. - Question 9 of 10
An 18-month-old child presents for a first dental visit. The child has white-spot lesions on maxillary incisors, drinks fluoridated community water at 0.7 ppm, and brushes twice daily with a smear of fluoride toothpaste. The caregiver asks whether the child needs “stronger fluoride.” What is the best pediatric dental recommendation today?
Fluoride modality selection
A is correct: young children at elevated caries risk benefit from professional 5% sodium fluoride varnish, while children under 3 should use only a smear of fluoride toothpaste. C is tempting, but systemic supplementation depends on age and water fluoride; at 0.7 ppm it is not indicated. A overestimates home dosing; pea-sized toothpaste begins at age 3. D is a scope error: pediatricians may apply varnish in medical settings, but pediatric dentists assess risk, provide professional fluoride, counsel, and document.
ASSESS caries risk and water fluoride; INTERVENE with varnish and smear toothpaste; REFER only for non-dental needs; DOCUMENT lesions, fluoride exposure, consent, and instructions. - Question 10 of 10
A 7-year-old presents for comprehensive care. Findings include cavitated lesions on K and L with intermittent pain, plaque-induced gingivitis, severe gagging and dental anxiety, asthma controlled with an albuterol inhaler, frequent juice intake, and missed prior recall visits because of transportation barriers. Which problem list best supports safe sequencing of care?
C is correct: a pediatric dental problem list should organize active disease, function/behavior, risk, and medical/social modifiers to prevent sequencing errors. D is tempting but incomplete; ignoring asthma, behavior, and risk can compromise consent, prevention, and appointment planning. A is a reasonable medical consultation only if asthma control is uncertain; the dentist should document controlled asthma and coordinate as needed, not defer all diagnosis. B recognizes an important social modifier but fails to list active oral disease and behavior needs. ASSESS disease, behavior, risk, and modifiers; INTERVENE for urgent disease and prevention; REFER/consult when medical control is unclear; DOCUMENT findings and sequencing rationale.
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